Previous Next Index Thread

PHILOS - TechnoProgress and adaptation pains

Sent from: shalizi@phys-next9.physics.wisc.edu (Cosma Shalizi)

Copy of a letter to ``Sasha'' Chislenko <sasha1@netcom.com>, 
forwarded to FringeWare at his suggestion:

Dear Sasha (if I may),

I've just seen this on Fringeware, and with respect, you're confused. It 
is precisely _because_ people in industrial societies are more educated,
affluent, secure and well-informed that there is such a great degree of
vocal opposition to many changes.  Think about industrialization.  This
has _never_ been accomplished pleasantly; for most of the population it
has always meant _increased_ suffering and hardship.  Ultimately, given a
fairly large degree of democracy, their descendants are better off, but
it's never been a popular cause.  In all cases --- western Europe, North
America, Japan, Russia, etc. --- it's been imposed from above, on
populations which were poor, uneducated, insecure and ill-organized. 

(This is _not_ a bit of leftist agit-prop, but exceedingly orthodox
economic and social history; references available upon request.)  Where
the society was liberal enough for popular opposition, it existed, and was
very vocal, and sometimes was crushed by military force (as in Britain,
this country, and Japan); sometimes the entire society was ground down by
terror before industrialization began (as in the Soviet Union).  Asking
for psychological counseling is new, but demands for better pay and
working conditions, and economic support generally, are not.   

The case is similar, incidentally, with nomadism.  There's strong
evidence that modern nomadism (at least of the pastoral type you seem to be
thinking of) actually developed with or after settled agriculture (see
e.g. Khazanov, _Nomads and the Outside World_), and is symbiotic or
parasitic upon it.  In any case, such nomads (almost?) never settle down to
_farming_ voluntarily (although they have little objection to
conquering agricultural populations, when they can).  They only make that
transition when forced to by an already-settled state, and they resent it
bitterly, and revolt as the opportunity allows (e.g., the Plains
Indians, or the _basmachi_ in Central Asia).  A state which is sufficiently
indifferent or hostile to forcibly settle nomads is not one to which they
can sensibly appeal for aid.   

Now the question is, why do people object to these changes?  Let us grant that
they are, on a large scale, progressive (though, between you and me, I don't
see how subsistence agriculture is a great advance over nomadism).  The
answer is that it is perfectly possible for something to be positive on the
large scale, and completely negative on the small scale --- where
``small'' means individual human lives.  The industrial revolution, we
agree, was progressive: but how long did it take before it started to
benefit most of the people in England?  Something like a hundred years
passed between the invention of the steam engine and the arrival of popular
votes and nearly tolerable factory conditions in the 1870s.  Between then
the industrialization was kept up because those who did benefit had enough
power to force it on those who emphatically did not.       

The changes in the advanced economies since about 1970* haven't by any
means returned us to the horrors of the industrial revolution, but the
benefits to most of us have been slight or non-existent: real incomes for
most households (at least in the US) have been stagnant or shrinking,
inequality has grown, employment (and with it, quality of life) is much
less secure, there's been a vast growth in jobs which can only be described
as shitty, along with involuntary part-time and contingent employment,
etc., etc.  (Again, this is all accepted by all economists with their head
plugged in: vide Paul Krugman, _Peddling Prosperity_, or Bennett
Harrison, _Lean and Mean_, etc.  I suppose George Gilder might dissent,
but, frankly, who cares?)  These changes have benefited some people, but
why on Earth should the rest of us encourage them, when we have no guarantee
that these benefits ultimately _will_ be shared equitably?  Given that
they have a great deal to loose (affluence, education, security, etc., if
not for themselves then for their spawn), and some means to resist, it would
be surprising if people did not object; indeed, what needs to be explained
is why there isn't _more_ resistance.  (To avoid misunderstanding: I'm a
technophile; I love computers; I'm a flaming net.geek; but that's very
different from loving Bill Gates and his shareholders, and I think what we
need to do is look for effective ways of sharing the very real benefits of new
technologies, instead of trusting that things will take care of
themselves, because they never do.)    

I won't even touch the bit about how it's beneficial to have the government
run by visionaries able to sniff out trends; two futurists cannot pass each
other in the street without smiling.  

Regards,

Cosma

*: I use this awkward label, rather than ``the information revolution,''
because the latter is simply not accurate.  The best history of ``the
technical and economic origins of the information society'', James
Beniger's _The Control Revolution_, argues pretty conclusively that you
cannot have an industrial economy without also having an information
economy to control it, and that, at least in the USA, this was accomplished
by the 1930s, if not earlier.  The size of the information sector has been
essentially stagnant since 1960.  (It's best to see Beniger's book, which
is really excellent, but I am immodest enough to mention two of my web pages:
http://www.physics.wisc.edu/~shalizi/reviews/beniger and
~shalizi/notebooks/machlup.html) 

---
	http://www.physics.wisc.edu/~shalizi/
This message banned for you by the Telecommunications Reform Act:
	For a whore is a deep ditch; and a strange woman is a narrow pit.
	(Proverbs 23:27)